DCML Digest, Vol 37, Issue 11

Donald D. Markstein ddmarkstein at cox.net
Mon Mar 13 12:24:40 CET 2006

> I also ascribe to the "s-apostrophe" rather than the "s-apostrophe-s" 
> rule, which seems illogical, and is, because Americans at least will 
> ad an extra "s" as in /Barkses stories/ when they pronounce the 
> possessive of Barks.  Still, I have never liked the way it looks!  And 
> so, even though the sound is there, I will not write an extra  gentive 
> "s" for a word ending in -s.
> Illogical, but that's English!

No it isn't. Not correct English, anyway. Tell me, do you also "ascribe" 
(look it up) to the practice of using an apostrophe to form plurals? 
That, too, is a popular but grossly incorrect way of dealing with 
English nouns.

>In English, some proper names, such as "Paris", are typically written in
>singular, while other proper names, such as "Athens", are typically in
>plural.  Does this mean that the correct genitive cases for those place
>names are "Paris's" and "Athens'" respectively?  How do you know if a
>proper name is singular or plural?

"Athens" is plural? I never heard that one before. So, what does it mean 
to speak of one Athen?

Quack, Don
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